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1. Beer's law states that the darker the color produced, the more light
absorbed in the specimen; the more light absorbed, the (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1183742/beer39s-law-states-that-thedarker-color-produced-more-light)
The Ultimate Infinity War Quiz Has Arrived! (https://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php? title=3dq-the-ultimate-infinity-war-quiz-hasarrived) Dating Relationship Quiz: Does Your Crush Like You? (https://www.proprofs.com/quizschool/story.php?title=does-your-crush-like-yougirls-only_1)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1183742/beer39s-law-states-that-the-darker-colorproduced-more-light)
A. Lower the concentration of the analyte B. Higher the concentration of the analyte
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C. More light transmitted
NBME (https://www.proprofs.com/quizschool/topic/nbme)
D. Longer the wavelength required
NCCT (https://www.proprofs.com/quizschool/topic/ncct) NCLEX (https://www.proprofs.com/quizschool/topic/nclex)
2. What is the normality of a solution of sodium hydroxide (molecular
weight=40) containing 20 grams in 100 mL of solution? (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1206685/what-normality-solutionsodium-hydroxide-molecular-weight40-)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1206685/what-normality-solution-sodium-hydroxidemolecular-weight40-)
A. 5.0N B. 1.0N C. 0.5N D. 0.4N 3. Carbohydrates are organic compounds of 1. carbon 2. hydrogen 33.
oxygen
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 4. If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results
beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of
A. 3 B. 5 C. 20 D. 300 5. To make a 1:5 dilution of serum sample, dilute
(https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1206686/to-make-a-15-dilution-ofserum-sample-dilute-5id)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1206686/to-make-a-15-dilution-of-serum-sample-dilute5id)
A. 1.0 mL of serum + 5.0 mL of diluent B. 1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent C. 1.0 mL of serum + 6.0 mL of diluent D. 5.0 mL of serum + 1.0 mL of diluent 6. WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?
A. Transports glucose B. Regulates body temperature C. Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation D. Provides humoral immunity 7. Which instruments do NOT measure concentrations of a particular
molecule but of the total ions and molecules in general (number of moles per kilogram of water)?
A. Osmometers B. Spectrophotometers C. Blood gas analyzers D. Immunochemical analyzers 8. Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring
A. Freezing point depression B. Refractive index C. Specific gravity D. Ionic strength 9. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the
reaction of creatinine and
A. Sulfuric acid B. Alkaline picrate C. Acetic anhydride D. Ammonium hydroxide 10. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT
A. Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure B. Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi C. Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow D. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction 11. Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as
A. Conjugated bilirubin B. Prehepatic bilirubin C. Total bilirubin D. Biliverdin 12. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in
A. Kidney disease B. Liver disease C. Myocardial infarction D. Obstructive jaundice 13. The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and
A. Lactic acid B. 3-hydroxy butyric acid C. Oxaloacetic acid D. Acetic acid 14. Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone
A. ACTH B. Insulin C. Thyroxin D. Hydrocortisone 15. Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic
fractions of
A. Hemoglobin B. Amino acid C. Serum protein D. Serum lipoprotein 16. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein
abnormality?
A. Isoenzyme electrophoresis B. Immunoelectrophoresis C. Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum D. Blood viscosity studies 17. Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? 1. lactic
dehydrogenase (LDH) (LD) 2. creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) (CK) 3. serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1,2, and 3 18. Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is
A. Bound to globulin B. Bound to albumin C. Free D. Bound to cholesterol 19. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of
A. Blood coagulation B. Osmotic pressure of body fluids C. Cardiac muscle contractions D. Salt intake 20. When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, each of the serum proteins in an
electrical field migrates toward
A. The positive pole B. The negative pole C. Either pole D. Both poles 21. The end-product of purine metabolism is
A. Urea B. Creatine C. Creatinine D. Uric acid 22. When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of
the mean but maintain a constant level, it is known as a
A. Normal distribution curve B. Mean deviation curve C. Shift D. Trend 23. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a
calculated mean value is known as
A. Coefficient variation B. Quality control C. Stardard deviation D. Percent deviation 24. Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is
recommended by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?
A. Oxyhemoglobin B. Sulfhemoglobin C. Methemoglobin D. Cyanmethemoglobin 25. When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood
is diluted
A. 1:200 B. 1:50 C. 1:20 D. 1:10 26. An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being
A. Variable in shape B. Packed with hemoglobin C. Markedly bluish in color D. Markedly pale in central color 27. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted
instruments
A. Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes B. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets C. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes D. Do not count nucleated red blood cells 28. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will
demonstrate the presence of
A. Howell-Jolly bodies B. Rubriblasts C. Heniz bodies D. Plasmodium species 29. The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is
A. Macrocytic B. Aplastic C. Hemolytic D. Microcytic 30. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on
the
A. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell B. Size of the particle being counted C. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell D. Value of the cell indices 31. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern
becomes (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/745824/during-thematuration-of-blood-cell-nuclear-chromatin-patter)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/745824/during-the-maturation-of-blood-cell-nuclearchromatin-patter)
A. Finer B. More dense C. Less dense D. More acidic 32. As a general rule, when a blood cell matures
A. The cell increases in size B. The cell decreases in size C. There is no change in the cell's size D. The nucleus increases in size 33. An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic
granulocytes USUALLY indicates
A. Bacterial infection B. Viral infection C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Allergic reaction 34. Which of the following tests is used to measure capillary fragility?
A. Tourniquet B. Bleeding time C. Prothrombin time D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 35. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
A. Distilled water B. Highly-diluted blood C. Diluting fluid D. Lysing reagent only 36. Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
A. Reticulocytes B. Platelets C. Malaria D. Howell-Jolly bodies 37. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears
A. Clear (colorless) B. Bright red C. Light yellow or straw colored D. Greeen 38. The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the
hemacytometer is
A. 0.1 cm B. 1.0 cm C. 0.1 mm D. 1.0 mm 39. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high
background count would be
A. WBC and Hgb B. RBC and Hgb C. RBC and WBC D. Hct and WBC 40. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination
reveals (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1066139/leukemia-maysuspected-when-manual-hematocrit-determination-)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1066139/leukemia-may-suspected-when-manualhematocrit-determination-)
A. Hemolysis B. Icteric plasma C. A high hematocrit D. A heavy buffy coat 41. Hansel's stain is appropriate for
A. Circulating eosinophiles B. Phagocytic neutrophils C. Nasal secrection for eosinophiles D. Leukocytes in spinal fluid 42. Reticulocytes contain
A. DNA remnants B. RNA remnants C. Basophilic granules D. Howell-Jolly bodies 43. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given
orally is
A. Heparin B. Protamine sulfate C. Saliclate D. Coumadin 44. The screenign or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is
normal when hemolysis begins in
A. 0.50% NaCl B. 0.85% NaCl C. 0.90% NaCl D. 1.34% NaCl 45. Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of
A. Factor VII deficiency B. Factor X deficiency C. Hemophilia D. Platelet function 46. Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency
of Factor VIII?
A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth 47. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on
A. Serum only B. Plasma only C. Either serum or plasma D. Any body fluid 48. In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or
chronic infection such as
A. Pneumonia B. Infectious hepatitis C. Lupus erythematosus D. Helicobacter pylori 49. The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is
A. 0.02 mL B. 0.05 mL C. 0.10 mL D. 0.15 mL 50. Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?
(https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1105415/which-one-of-the-followingis-characteristic-any-antigen-4fc)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1105415/which-one-of-the-following-is-characteristicany-antigen-4fc)
A. High molecular weight B. High order of specificity C. Foreign to animal D. Produced by action of antibody 51. The RA latex test is used as a screening test for
A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Thyroiditis C. Vulvovaginitis D. Infectious mononucleosis 52. The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of
serum is
A. 25 C for 1 hour B. 37 C for 30 min C. 56 C for 30 min D. 56 C for 10 min 53. Group O patients can safely recieve plasma from a donor who is group
(https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/776210/group-patients-can-safelyrecieve-plasma-from-donor-who-is)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/776210/group-patients-can-safely-recieve-plasma-fromdonor-who-is)
A. A only B. AB only C. O only D. A, AB, or O 54. Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)
(https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1106140/rh-immune-globulin-is-givento-an-d-3d5)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1106140/rh-immune-globulin-is-given-to-an-d-3d5)
A. Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus B. Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband C. Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus D. Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus 55. Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A. Urine porphyrins B. Serum haptoglobin C. Post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin D. Pre-transfusion bilirubin 56. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with
A. Anti-A serum B. Anti-AB serum C. Anti-A2 serum D. Dolichos biflorus serum 57. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be
used to help identify the antibody that is attached to the patient's cells IN VIVO?
A. D(u) B. Elution C. Direct anti-human globulin test D. Indirect anti-human globulin test 58. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of
ABO inheritance?
A. Weiner B. Landsteiner C. Levine D. Bernstein 59. During the crossmatch procedure, a negative rsult on the addition of
Coombs control cells indicated that the
A. Crossmatch is compatible and the blood may be infused B. Crossmatch is incompatible C. Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test. D. Antiglobulin reagent is detecting antibody globulin, indicating adequate washing during the crossmatch procedures.
60. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is
A. Chloride B. Potassium C. Sodium D. Bicarbonate 61. Antihuman serum globulin reagent
(https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/881163/antihuman-serum-globulinreagent)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/881163/antihuman-serum-globulin-reagent)
A. Is produced in humans B. Occurs naturally in most humans C. Is produced in laboratory animals D. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies 62. Blood group A individuals have
A. Anti-A in their serum B. Anti-B in their serum C. Antigen A and B on their red cells D. Anti-O in their serum 63. A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred
(https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1162788/donor-who-recently-testedpositive-for-hbsag-should-be-defer)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1162788/donor-who-recently-tested-positive-for-hbsagshould-be-defer)
A. For 6 months B. For 1 year C. For 5 years D. Permanently 64. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing
A. Reverse typing B. Immunoglobulin testing C. D(u) testing D. Autoagglutination tests 65. A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All
of their offspring will be
A. Erythroblastotic B. Homozygous Rh(D) positive C. Heterozygous Rh(D) positive D. 50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D)negative 66. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood
cells, the corresponding antibody
A. Is present in the serum B. Is absent from the serum C. Is present in the blood cells D. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present 67. Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group
should be centrifuged for
A. 15-30 seconds @ 1000 B. 2 min @ 2000 C. 3 min @ 3000 D. 5 min @ 5000 68. Water-soluble pigments are produced by
A. Yeasts B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Group A streptococcus 69. A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test
A. Indicates no infection B. Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies C. Indicates the severity of infection D. Is positive during the chancre stage 70. Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?
A. Bacillus anthracis B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Clostridium botulinum D. Nocardia asteroides 71. Optochin is used to help identify
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A) D. Strepococci producing alpha hemolysis 72. A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains
A. Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm B. Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus C. A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod D. Red blood cells int he cytoplasm 73. Which media is used to ISOLATE Staphylococcus aureus from specimens
that have mixed bacterial flora such as feces?
A. Mannitol salt agar B. An enrichment broth C. MacConkey agar D. Eosin methylene blue agar (EMB) 74. A fladellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is
A. Trichomonas hominis B. Entamoeba coli C. Trichomonas tenax D. Trichomonas vaginalis 75. Which organisms are described as minute, very plemorphic, sometimes
coccobacillary, gram-negative rods that must have media enriched with X and V factors?
A. Escherichia coli B. Listeria monocytogenes C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Bacillus anthracis 76. Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the
isolation of
A. Haemophilus B. Bordetella C. Pasteurello D. Yersinia 77. According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus
species, the neterococci are placed in group
A. A B. B C. C D. D 78. Strepococcus pneumoniae
(https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/197360/strepococcus-pneumoniae)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/197360/strepococcus-pneumoniae)
A. Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures B. Grows best at slightly acid pH C. Is motile D. Capsules are produced by virulent strians 79. Which one fo the following test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from
other types of staphlococci?
A. Oxidase B. Coagulase C. Catalase D. Fibrinolysin 80. The etiologic agent of chancroid is
A. Haemophilus aegyptius B. Haemophilus ducreyi C. Haemophilus influenzae D. Bordetella pertussis 81. Safranin in a Gran stain is used as a
A. Mordant B. Decolorizer C. Secondary stain D. Primary stain 82. The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis
is
A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus viridans D. Staphylococcus haemolyticus 83. A variety of media may be safely stored for months is care is taken to
A. Maintain them at room temperature B. Retain their moisture C. Avoid exposing them to light D. Maintain them in an incubator 84. In the 1980s, Ewing, Bergey, and the Centers for Disease Control and
Prevention (CDC) divided the Enterobacteriaceae into several different tribes. Which one of the following is NOT a valid tribe under their classification scheme?
A. Escherichieae Escherichia-Shigella B. Citrobactereae Citobacter C. Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae Salmonella-Shigella D. Edwardsielleae Edwardsiella 85. In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in
A. Cattle B. Swine C. Fish D. Man 86. A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used
A. Ammonium sulfate B. Zinc chloride C. Zinc sulfate D. Concentrated formalin 87. The infective stage of the hookworm is the
A. Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity B. Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity C. Filariform larva with a pointed tail D. Filariform larva with a notched tail 88. Enterobius vermilcularis is a
A. Hookworm B. Pinworm C. Filarial worm D. Flat worm 89. The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which of
the following organisms?
A. Balantidium coli B. Endolimax nana C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Iodamoeba butschlii 90. The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine
is
A. Schistosoma mansoni B. Schistosoma haematobium C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Schistosoma hepatica 91. Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their
A. Serologic and biochemical characteristics B. Staining properties with polychrome dyes C. Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide D. Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae 92. The modified Griess nitrite test, when positive to any degree, is virtually
dianostic of
A. Significant bacteriuria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine) B. Any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine) C. Bilirubin in the urine D. Phenylalanine in the urine 93. In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is
A. Simple filtration B. Secretion C. Selective re-absorption D. Re-absorption of water 94. In using a urinometer to measure specific gravity, the correction facotr for
each 3 degrees C higher or lower than calibration temperature is
A. +/- 1.001 B. +/- 0.100 C. +/- 0.010 D. +/- 0.001 95. Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?
(https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1042884/which-of-the-following-testsis-specific-for-urinary-glucose)
Discuss (https://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/1042884/which-of-the-following-tests-is-specific-forurinary-glucose)
A. Benedict's B. Clinitest C. Pandy D. Dip stick 96. Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile cells
having an oval "head" with a rather long, delicate, whip-like tail, These cells are most likely identified as
A. Proteus vulgaris B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Spirochetes D. Spermatozoa 97. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of
A. Ketone bodies B. Protein C. Glucose D. Uric acid
USMLE (https://www.proprofs.com/quizschool/topic/usmle)
98. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the
following urine test procedures?
A. Hydrometry B. Osmolality C. Refractive index D. Specific gravity 99. Dilute normal urine is usually
A. Pale yellow B. Dark yellow C. Reddish-yellow D. Amber 100. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with
A. Alkaline copper B. Nitroprusside C. Ferric chloride D. 2,4 dichloraniline
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